I was recently a guest on a show called Tanak Talk, where the host—having left Christianity to embrace Judaism—posed a question I found incisive. He pointed out an apparent tension between two texts: Isaiah 45:23, in which Yahweh declares, “To me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear allegiance,” and Philippians 2:10–11, where Paul writes, “at the name of Jesus every knee should bow… and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord.” His question, sharp and to the point, was this: How can Paul take a verse so clearly about Yahweh and apply it to Jesus?
Unfortunately, amidst the passion and pace of the conversation, I wasn’t given the space to fully articulate my response. So, I offer this written reflection—not in protest, but in gratitude. For such questions deserve the courtesy of careful answers.
The Name That Belongs to Jesus
Let’s begin with the phrase “at the name of Jesus.” Many assume this means that the mere utterance of the syllables “Jesus” will prompt a cosmic genuflection. But the Greek tells a richer story. Paul’s wording—ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι Ἰησοῦ—carries the sense of “in connection with” or “by virtue of” Jesus’ name. And more pointedly, the grammar implies possession: “the name that belongs to Jesus.”
Why does this matter? Just prior, in Philippians 2:9, Paul tells us that God “highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name.” And it cannot be “Jesus,” for that was the name He bore from birth (Matt 1:21). The name bestowed upon Him—the climactic title—is “Lord” (κύριος), a designation thick with theological significance. In the Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures known as the Septuagint (LXX)—rendered by Jewish scholars some two centuries before Christ—κύριος stands as the customary translation of the divine name, YHWH.
So, Paul is not suggesting some magic formula; he is identifying Jesus with the Lord of Israel. When we say “Jesus is Lord,” we are not merely making a religious statement. We are confessing that the man from Nazareth bears the name and authority of the living God.
A Hymn Sung by the Early Church
Philippians 2:6–11, where all this unfolds, is widely understood to be an early Christian hymn—a creed not merely argued but sung. Its poetic cadence, its balanced structure, and its progression from heavenly glory to human humility and back again, all mark it as doxology as much as doctrine. The hymn breaks neatly into two stanzas:
- Descent (vv. 6–8): Though existing in the form of God, Christ did not cling to His status, but emptied Himself—taking the form of a servant, entering into human flesh, and descending even unto death.
- Ascent (vv. 9–11): Therefore, God exalted Him, bestowing on Him the name above all names. And in response, every knee will bow, every tongue confess: Jesus Christ is Lord.
The Church didn’t merely believe Jesus was Lord; they sang it. And they did so in continuity with the worship of Yahweh, now revealed in Jesus.
Isaiah Fulfilled, Not Rewritten
Now, to the host’s question: Did Paul “rewrite” Isaiah?
Hardly. He fulfilled it.
Isaiah 45:23 is a solemn pronouncement by Yahweh: “To me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear allegiance.” It’s an uncompromising declaration of monotheism—Yahweh stands alone, unmatched, unrivaled.
And in Philippians 2:10–11, Paul intentionally echoes this text, now in reference to Jesus. And in doing so, he makes a rather breathtaking theological move. He is not replacing Yahweh with Jesus; he is proclaiming that Jesus is Yahweh—now incarnate, crucified, risen, and exalted. The universal homage once promised in Isaiah now finds its rightful fulfillment in the incarnate Son, Christ Jesus.
Yet—and here is the brilliance—Paul does not fracture monotheism in the process. The confession “Jesus Christ is Lord” is not in competition with the Father. It is offered “to the glory of God the Father” (Phil 2:11). The Son is not a rival deity, but the radiant expression of the one true God. This is monotheism fulfilled, not forsaken.
One of the Boldest Claims in the New Testament
Thus, in just six verses, Paul offers one of the clearest and most profound statements of Jesus’ divinity found in all of Scripture. He is not innovating, nor borrowing pagan ideas. He is reading Isaiah through the lens of the Resurrection. And in that light, he sees clearly: the crucified Jesus is the exalted Lord—the very one to whom every knee will bow.
This, then, is why we bend our knee to Jesus. Not merely because of His moral teachings or sacrificial death, but because He now bears the Name—the divine Name—above every name. The homage due to Yahweh in Isaiah is not redirected elsewhere; it is revealed, embodied, and fulfilled in Christ.
Soli Deo Gloria.
Anonymous
This is so well explained. Thank you for sharing.
Brian
Some years ago I read someone suggesting this very point. It was more a suggestion than an affirmation, but I’ve taken it to heart ever since. Now, in terms of spiritual warfare (or spiritual warprayer) I always command in the name of the Lord, Jesus Christ. That comma is crucial.
Anonymous
In the Hebrew New Covenant Scriptures, what you are saying is even more stark and unequivocal. In two Ways, the Hebrew Scriptures reveal this fact.
The first is found in the name of Yeshua itself. Yeshua means YHVH is salvation or YHVH saves. So, just as pronounced by Peter on Pentecost when he quoted Joel, “Whoever calls on the name of YHVH shall be saved.” YHVH and His Son is exactly Who was being preached.
In the Hebrew 1 Corinthians, (as elsewhere), the fact of exactly who the Messiah was and is is not left to debate. In the English, we have the following:
1 Corinthians 12:3
Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.
In the Hebrew, instead of “Jesus is the Lord,” it states that “Yeshua is YHVH.”
As I said, in the Hebrew, all debate about this issue is completely removed.
Thank You
R. L. Solberg
Thanks for your comment! I agree that the name Yeshua (יֵשׁוּעַ) points to “Yahweh saves”—a beautiful truth reflected throughout Scripture. And yes, the NT teaches clearly that Jesus is divine. He is Emmanuel, “God with us” (Matt 1:23), and “in Him the fullness of deity dwells bodily” (Col 2:9).
That said, it’s important to clarify that there’s no original “Hebrew 1 Corinthians.” Paul wrote his letters in Greek, the common language of the Roman world. Any Hebrew versions today are later translations, not original texts. So while “Yeshua is YHVH” is theologically true, we should base our doctrine on the inspired Greek NT and its faithful translations.
Either way, Jesus is Yahweh in the flesh—the Son of God and Savior of the world. Amen to that!
RLS
Anonymous
The name of Yahshua remains Yahshua regardless of translation.
His name never had a “J” in it. Since the letter “J” didn’t exist then.
And if we are going to keep the Greek translation..how does a “Stake” become a “Cross”
Yahshua most likely died on a stake 1. Because that’s what is says
2. Wood was an expensive commodity back then and they wouldn’t waste two pieces of it to form a cross (by the way is a pagan symbol) on individuals sentenced to death as a criminal.
Even though we know our God was never a criminal/ murderer…that’s the sentenced they passed on to him fulfilling scripture.
Anonymous
You might want to check out the work of Dr Al Garza (maybe contact him), who is directly involved in a significant portion of the work involving Hebrew Manuscripts that continue to be discovered in Hebrew archive around the world.
While some of these are definitely translations from the Greek, others show the hallmarks of coming from original Hebrew manuscripts, some of which are specifically mentioned by early Church Fathers.
Dr. Al Garza
https://www.youtube.com/@dralgarza
Anonymous
I do not understand why we call our Savior Jesus. His name is and always was Yashua. The letter “J” didn’t exist at all until most recently in history. That is why the name of Jesus doesn’t even appear in history. The same goes for the Jews, aren’t they Hebrews..I find it unbelievably that the the modern day scribes (Scholars) just don’t do their due diligence on so many issues. Also why was it allowed to remove the name of YHWH from our bibles..Who on Earth had that authority?? It was replaced erroneously with Adoni or Lord…are you kidding me..how pathetic. Where is the scholarship in this? He gave us his name and he repeatedly tells us to call him by his name..Not title..very sad!
Anonymous
Jesus is not a replacement of Yeshua, just a natural morphing of spelling and sound that happens to most names when they travel across languages and centuries. Consider how that same spelling is pronounced in Spanish. Adonai/Lord is not used as a replacement for Yahweh. The Jews were afraid to accidentally misuse God’s name, so when they read the O.T. they said Adonai out loud rather than Lord. To avoid changing scripture, though, they kept the Yahweh consonants in the text but added the Adonai vowel pointing. (There was an accident that happened later when translaters turned that mash-up into Jehovah.) In most of today’s English versions, LORD (all caps) is used for Yahweh, perhaps to avoid offense, but still signaling the underlying name. I often reverse the historical process by pronouncing LORD as Yahweh.
Anonymous
Care to explain how in history the name “Jesus doesn’t appear”?
Anonymous
Glorious! Excelent and clear explanation. Thank you!
Anonymous
Don’t the verses in Exodus 23: (20 Behold, I am sending an angel before you to protect you along the way and to bring you to the place I have prepared. 21 Pay attention to him and listen to his voice; do not defy him, for he will not forgive rebellion, since My Name is in him.)… also add creedence to this understanding you have put forth here? AND… in Exodus 13: (21 And the LORD went before them in a pillar of cloud to guide their way by day, and in a pillar of fire to give them light by night, so that they could travel by day or night. 22 Neither the pillar of cloud by day nor the pillar of fire by night left its place before the people.)… also backup what you are stating here? I appreciate your attention to the word of God… thanks. Marc
Anonymous
So they called them and commanded them not to speak at all nor teach in the name of Jesus.
Acts 4:18
In the UK and perhaps also in the US we have a saying that would be used in the same way that ‘For the love of God…! would be used and that is ‘In the name of God…!’ So it might be that someone exasperated would exclaim “In the name of God what’s happened?!”. My question; in Acts 4:18 (and other places in the book of Acts) were the disciples being accused of blasphemy? Were they using the name of God and would that be YAHWEH?
(or YEHOWAH as the attached article suggests.)
Thank you
https://www.bereanpatriot.com/how-to-pronounce-gods-name-%D7%99%D7%94%D7%95%D7%94-yhwh-the-tetragrammaton/
Anonymous
This is a beautiful work
Anonymous
Beautifully expressed. But a sidenote: the image of Christ at the top keeps me from sharing it.
Anonymous
Someone shared this article with me on FB. I understand what the author is saying, and fully agree, but I have always wondered: if the early Church understood that Jesus is YAHWEH, then why was the Council of Nicaea necessary? When did the divinity of Christ come under dispute? It seems, according to Paul’s letters, that this was an undisputed tenant of Christian doctrine. Did all of the apostles understand and believe that Jesus is God the Son?